Views of Christ (Number 4)

This is the final installment of the four part series written by Wayne Jackson on this topic. This article appeared in the August, 1976 edition of The Christian Courier. It was published by the East Main Street Church of Christ in Stockton, California and edited by Jackson.

In this final article on the "Views of Christ", we will discuss the relationship of our Lord to the Father following the judgment. There is a remarkable passage in I Corinthians which is addressed to this theme. Some among the saints in Corinth declared: "There is no resurrection of the dead" (I Corinthians 15:12). This Paul, perhaps in answer to questions concerning this (I Corinthians 7:1), considers this problem in chapter 15. This great chapter contains the following sections: (a) Proof of the resurrection of Christ (1-11); (b) The Lord's resurrection as the guarantee of the coming resurrection (12-34); (c) The nature of the resurrection (35-49); (d) Effects of the resurrection (50-58). In connection with Jesus' resurrection and the triumphs resultant from it, Paul says:

"For He has put all things under His feet. But when He says 'all things are put under Him,' it is evident that He who put all things under Him is excepted. Now when all things are made subject to Him, then the Son Himself will also be subject to Him who put all things under Him, that God may be all in all." (I Corinthians 15:27-28)

Of special interest here is the Greek word hupotasso, found in various grammatical forms six times in these two verses. Originally the term had a military significance meaning, "to place or rank under," then more generally it came simply to mean "subject to" or "subordinate to" someone. The word is used forty times in the New Testament and is translated by such English forms as "subject," submitted," "put under" and "obey." For example, it is used of Jesus' subjection to His earthly parents (Luke 2:51), the Christian's submission to governmental authorities (Romans 13:1) and the subjection of wives to their husbands (Titus 2:5).

In I Corinthians 15, several truths are apparent. First, it is stated that God, "subjected" all things to Christ. The verb (in the aorist tense) suggests that at a definite point in time the Father subjected all things to Christ. This occurred when the Lord ascended to Heaven and sat down at the Father's right hand (Ephesians 1:20-23). It is true that while Jesus was still on earth He said, "All things have been delivered to Me..." (Matthew 11:27; cf. Matthew 28:18) but as McGarvey observes: "Jesus here speaks by anticipation. In God's purpose, all things were already delivered to Him, but they were not actually delivered until His glorification." (Commentary on Matthew and Mark, p. 102.) The apostle makes it clear of course, that the Father Himself was not subjected to the son.

The most puzzling aspect of these verses however, is the declaration that when all things have been subjected to Christ (a prophecy of the Savior's ultimate victory), "then the Son Himself will also be subject to Him (God)." The intriguing question is, in what sense will the Son be eternally subjected to the Father? I will not review the diverse opinions of commentators on this passage, but rather simply call attention to the following facts.

The subject of the relationship with the Godhead is complex and certainly beyond our ability to fully comprehend at present. In His pre-incarnate form, Christ was equal to the First Person of the Godhead (i.e., the Father) in every way. In Zechariah 13:7 He is called Jehovah's "fellow" (Hebrew, amith) asserting equality. In the New Testament John writes: "...the Word was with (pros) God..." (John 1:1). Robertson remarks that, "Pros with the accusative presents a plane of equality and intimacy, face to face with each other." (Word Pictures, V, p.4.) When the Word became flesh (John 1:14) He emptied Himself of His equality with the First Person of the Godhead (Philippians 2:6), thus becoming the Son of God (Luke 1:35). Christ did not consider His, "equality with God as a prize which must not slip from His grasp, but He divested Himself, taking upon Him the form of a slave." (J. B. Lightfoot, Epistle to the Philippians, p. 111.)

That this emptying of equality occurred at a definite point in the past is evident from the aorist form of the verb, but that it involved no loss of His essential Deity is apparent from the present participle "existing", which demands an, "antecedent condition protracted into the present: and thus affirms our Lord's continuous divine nature. (Kenneth Wuest, Practical Use of the Greek New Testament, p. 86.) Moreover the text says Christ emptied Himself. It was a voluntary act and involved no loss of His Deity. The Lord's "emptying" seems simply to be the relinquishment of the independent exercise of His divine attributes. As God's Son, Jesus did not His own will, but the Father's (cf. John 5:20, 36; 8:28, 38; 10:18).

But in what sense will Christ be subject to the Father in eternity? First of all, scholars are agreed that it will involve no loss of His intrinsic God-nature. The expression "will also be subject to" (I Corinthians 15:28) carries the force of the middle voice, suggesting that the Son Himself shall subject Himself to the Father. (A. T. Robertson, Grammar of the Greek New Testament in Light of Historical Research, p. 809.) It is a voluntary, eternal submission. Nevertheless, the Scriptures clearly teach that Christ will share the glory of God's throne throughout eternity (Revelation 11:15; 22:1), Himself being worthy of glory and dominion forever and ever (Revelation 1:6).

When Christ conquers all, "then (tote) shall the Son also Himself be subjected." J. H. Moulton felt that the adverb tote, "seems to show that the Parousia (Coming of Christ) is thought of as initiating a new kind of subordination of the Son to the Father, and not the perpetuation of that which had been conspicuous in the whole of the mediatorial aeon." (Grammar of New Testament Greek, p. 149.) Now here is the earth shaking question. Is it possible that the descent of Christ to Earth, to dwell as a partaker of flesh and blood, might have entailed an eternal submission to the Father which, except for man's sin would never have occurred?! In other words, did the Lord because of the incarnation, choose to be forever identified with us in some way? That Christ chose to be a sharer with us (Hebrews 2:14) even on a temporary basis, would be a remarkable thing of itself; but the concept that He cast His lot with us, in some inexplicable way, forever is absolutely astonishing. We may have here a greater glimpse of the love of Christ than we ever imagined. Perhaps this is involved in Paul's statement that the saved are "joint heirs" with Christ (Romans 8:17) and that He is the "Firstborn among many brethren." (Romans 8:29).

Surely these verses contain mysteries which we do not presently grasp. Nonetheless, they may hint of a love for us that is far superior to anything we have yet realized; a devotion which really reflects the magnitude of God's "unspeakable gift" (II Corinthians 10:15). If so, what an incentive to holiness and service this concept would be!